OAT Practice Tests & Exam Review for the Optometry Admission Test
Optometry Admission Test (OAT Test) is a practically calibrated and exceptionally organized examination designed to measure general academic ability and convincing understanding of scientific information/knowledge. The OAT test is propagated and sponsored by the Association of Schools and Colleges of Optometry (ASCO) for applicants seeking admission to an optometry program.
TABLE OF CONTENT
Practice Test #1
Answers and Explanations #1
Practice Test #2
Answers and Explanations #2
Answers and Explanations #1
Practice Test #2
Answers and Explanations #2
Practice Test #1
Natural Science
Biology
1. The breakdown of a disaccharide releases energy which is stored as ATP. This
is an example of a(n)
a. Combination reaction
b Replacement reaction
c. Endothermic reaction
d. Exothermic reaction
e. Thermodynamic reaction
Natural Science
Biology
1. The breakdown of a disaccharide releases energy which is stored as ATP. This
is an example of a(n)
a. Combination reaction
b Replacement reaction
c. Endothermic reaction
d. Exothermic reaction
e. Thermodynamic reaction
2. Which of the following molecules is thought to have acted as the first enzyme
in early life on earth?
a. Protein
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Triglycerides
e. Phospholipids
in early life on earth?
a. Protein
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Triglycerides
e. Phospholipids
3. Cyanide is a poison that binds to the active site of the enzyme cytochrome c and
prevents its activity. Cyanide is a(n)
1. Prosthetic group
2. Cofactor
3. Coenzyme
4. Inhibitor
5. Reverse regulator
prevents its activity. Cyanide is a(n)
1. Prosthetic group
2. Cofactor
3. Coenzyme
4. Inhibitor
5. Reverse regulator
4. In photosynthesis, high-energy electrons move through electron transport chains
to produce ATP and NADPH. Which of the following provides the energy to
create high energy electrons?
1. NADH
2. NADP+
3. O2
4. Water
5. Light
to produce ATP and NADPH. Which of the following provides the energy to
create high energy electrons?
1. NADH
2. NADP+
3. O2
4. Water
5. Light
5. The synaptonemal complex is present in which of the following phases of the cell cycle?
1. Metaphase of mitosis
2. Metaphase of meiosis I
3. Telophase of meiosis I
4. Metaphase of meiosis II
5. Telophase of meiosis II
1. Metaphase of mitosis
2. Metaphase of meiosis I
3. Telophase of meiosis I
4. Metaphase of meiosis II
5. Telophase of meiosis II
6. Which type of plant has leaves with parallel veins?
a. Monocots
b. Dicots
c. Angiosperms
d. Gymnosperms
e. Nonvascular plants
a. Monocots
b. Dicots
c. Angiosperms
d. Gymnosperms
e. Nonvascular plants
7. In ferns, the joining of egg and sperm produces a zygote, which will grow into the
a. Gametophyte
b. Sporophyte
c. Spor
a. Gametophyte
b. Sporophyte
c. Spor
d. Sporangium
e. Seedling
e. Seedling
Questions 8 and 9 pertain to the following diagram of a complete, perfect flower
8. The structure in which microspores are produced.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
9. The structures composed solely of diploid cells
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 3, 4, and 5
d. 1, 4, and 5
e. 1, 2, and 4
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 3, 4, and 5
d. 1, 4, and 5
e. 1, 2, and 4
10. Which of the following processes is an example of positive feedback?
1. High CO2 blood levels stimulate respiration which decreases blood CO2 levels
2. High blood glucose levels stimulate insulin release, which makes muscle and liver cells take in glucose
3. Increased nursing stimulates increased milk production in mammary glands
4. Low blood oxygen levels stimulate erythropoietin production which increases red blood cell production by bone marrow
5. Low blood calcium levels stimulate parathyroid hormone release from the
parathyroid gland. Parathyroid hormone stimulates calcium release from bones.
11. In which of the following stages of embryo development are the three primary germ layers first present?
a. Zygote
b. Gastrula
c. Morula
d. Blastula
e. Coelomate
1. High CO2 blood levels stimulate respiration which decreases blood CO2 levels
2. High blood glucose levels stimulate insulin release, which makes muscle and liver cells take in glucose
3. Increased nursing stimulates increased milk production in mammary glands
4. Low blood oxygen levels stimulate erythropoietin production which increases red blood cell production by bone marrow
5. Low blood calcium levels stimulate parathyroid hormone release from the
parathyroid gland. Parathyroid hormone stimulates calcium release from bones.
11. In which of the following stages of embryo development are the three primary germ layers first present?
a. Zygote
b. Gastrula
c. Morula
d. Blastula
e. Coelomate
12. In the food chain below, vultures represent grass → cow → wolf → vulture
a. Scavengers
b. Detritivores
c. Primary carnivores
d. Herbivores
e. Secondary consumers
a. Scavengers
b. Detritivores
c. Primary carnivores
d. Herbivores
e. Secondary consumers
13. A population of 1000 individuals has 110 births and 10 deaths in a year. Its growth rate (r) is equal to a. 0.01 per year
b. 0.1 per year
c. 0.09 per year
d. 0.11 per year
e. 0.009 per year
b. 0.1 per year
c. 0.09 per year
d. 0.11 per year
e. 0.009 per year
14. When a population reaches its carrying capacity
a. Other populations will be forced out of the habitat
b. Density-dependent factors no longer play a role
c. Density-independent factors no longer play a role
d. The population growth rate approaches zero
e. The population size begins to decrease
a. Other populations will be forced out of the habitat
b. Density-dependent factors no longer play a role
c. Density-independent factors no longer play a role
d. The population growth rate approaches zero
e. The population size begins to decrease
15. Darwin’s idea that evolution occurs by the gradual accumulation of small changes can be summarized as
a. Punctuated equilibrium
b. Phyletic gradualism
c. Convergent evolution
d. Adaptive radiation
e. Sympatric speciation
a. Punctuated equilibrium
b. Phyletic gradualism
c. Convergent evolution
d. Adaptive radiation
e. Sympatric speciation
16. Human predation has cause the population of cheetahs to decline dramatically.
Changes in allele frequencies in the remaining population of cheetahs would most likely be due to
a. Mutation
Changes in allele frequencies in the remaining population of cheetahs would most likely be due to
a. Mutation
b. The bottleneck effect
c. The founder effect
d. Gene flow
e. Natural selection
c. The founder effect
d. Gene flow
e. Natural selection
17. Which of the following carbohydrate polymers serves as an energy storage molecule in plants?
a. Chitin
b. Cellulose
c. Starch
d. Glycogen
e. Phospholipids
a. Chitin
b. Cellulose
c. Starch
d. Glycogen
e. Phospholipids
18. All of the following molecules are soluble in water except:
a. Polysaccharides
b. Hydroxyl groups
c. Carboxylic acids
d. Polypeptides
e. Triglycerides
a. Polysaccharides
b. Hydroxyl groups
c. Carboxylic acids
d. Polypeptides
e. Triglycerides
19. The diagram below depicts a metabolic pathway. When product D accumulates, the production of product C decreases, D is an inhibitor of which enzyme?
1. A′
2. B′
3. C′
4. D′
5. E′
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of an enzyme cofactor?
a. It binds to an enzyme’s active site
b. It is consumed in the enzymatic reaction
c. It inhibits the enzymatic reaction
d. It binds to an allosteric site
e. It is covalently bound to the enzyme
2. B′
3. C′
4. D′
5. E′
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of an enzyme cofactor?
a. It binds to an enzyme’s active site
b. It is consumed in the enzymatic reaction
c. It inhibits the enzymatic reaction
d. It binds to an allosteric site
e. It is covalently bound to the enzyme
21. In photosynthesis, high-energy electrons in Photosystem II are transferred
along an electron transport chain and eventually end up in high-energy molecules
used in the Calvin Cycle. Which molecule provides electrons to replace those lost by Photosystem II after light stimulation?
a. NADPH
b. H2O
c. ATP
d. CO2
e. FADH2
along an electron transport chain and eventually end up in high-energy molecules
used in the Calvin Cycle. Which molecule provides electrons to replace those lost by Photosystem II after light stimulation?
a. NADPH
b. H2O
c. ATP
d. CO2
e. FADH2
22. Auxin stimulates stem elongation and is involved in the process of phototropism. If plants bend toward a light source, in which region of the plant is auxin most likely to be found?
1. The sunny side of a stem
2. The shaded side of a stem
3. The top of a shoot
1. The sunny side of a stem
2. The shaded side of a stem
3. The top of a shoot
4. The bottom of a shoot
5. The top side of leaves
5. The top side of leaves
23. Which of the following organisms has a circulatory system in which blood circulates in an internal cavity called a hemocoel?
a. Earthworms
b. Cats
c. Birds
d. Centipedes
e. Eels
a. Earthworms
b. Cats
c. Birds
d. Centipedes
e. Eels
24. In animals, consuming glucose causes insulin release from the pancreas, which
causes the liver and muscles to take in glucose from the blood stream. This is an example of:
a. Thermoregulation
b. Circulatory feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. Negative feedback
e. Receptor feedback
causes the liver and muscles to take in glucose from the blood stream. This is an example of:
a. Thermoregulation
b. Circulatory feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. Negative feedback
e. Receptor feedback
25. What will be the genotype of the gametes produced by a Tt individual?
a. All T
b. All t
c. ½ T and ½ t
d. All Tt
a. All T
b. All t
c. ½ T and ½ t
d. All Tt
e. ½ Tt and ½ tT
26. Hemophilia is a sex-linked trait. From which parent(s) did an affected boy inherit the trait?
a. Only the father
b. Only the mother
c. Both the father and the mother
d. The mother or the father but not both
e. Impossible to tell
a. Only the father
b. Only the mother
c. Both the father and the mother
d. The mother or the father but not both
e. Impossible to tell
27. Which of the following is the major way in which nitrogen is assimilated into
living things?
a. Erosion from sediments
b. Fixation by bacteria
c. Respiration from the atmosphere
d. Transpiration
e. Absorption from soils
living things?
a. Erosion from sediments
b. Fixation by bacteria
c. Respiration from the atmosphere
d. Transpiration
e. Absorption from soils
28. If a population’s growth rate is zero, it has likely reached its
a. Minimal viable population size
b. Full range
c. Carrying capacity
d. Mature age structure
e. Intrinsic growth rate
a. Minimal viable population size
b. Full range
c. Carrying capacity
d. Mature age structure
e. Intrinsic growth rate
